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### Q and A (IIT JEE New Pattern etc.)

Here are a few questions and answers which may be of general interest.
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Sir,

When would you put up the Analysis of Marks in IIT JEE 2005? For JEE 2006, how will IITs nullify the coaching institutions' training? What will be level of difficulty. Prof Idichandy has said that a good Standard XII Student can get through without any coaching. Will IIT JEE be comparable with AIEEE in terms of difficulty?What would be a likely cut off?Will there be a huge change from previous years' cut offs?

Thanking you,
Sathej
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The analysis will be put up once the data is sufficiently large enough to bring the error of extrapolation upto a certain limit.

The paper can be expected to be innovative in nature so as to offset traditional formats of coaching to some extent.

The difficulty level can be expected to be a bit lower than what a JEE is conventionally known for. AIEEE has not said anything about passage based questions. The cut-off may go higher but a huge change looks unlikely. Finally, the exam still works on method of elimination due to limited seats and hence the difficulty level and cut-off etc. affect everybody and hence one should not delve too much into pondering about it. The only thing that every student needs to do is to prepare according to high difficulty level and do few passage based questions every week.

### A man starts walking from the point P (-3, 4) ....

A man starts walking from the point P (-3, 4), touches the x-axis at R, and then turns to reach at the point Q (0, 2). The man is walking at a constant speed. If the man reaches the point Q in the minimum time, then $50 [(PR)^2 + (RQ)^2 ]$ is equal to _ _ _ _ . Solution For time to be minimum at constant speed, the directions must be symmetric. In other words, the angles made by PR and RQ with the vertical must be the same just like in the law of reflection in optics. $tan \theta = \frac {MP}{MR} = \frac {NQ}{NR}$ $\Rightarrow \frac {3-r}{4} = \frac {r}{2}$ $\Rightarrow r=1$ So, $R \equiv ( - 1,0)$ Now, $50(PR^2+RQ^2)=50[(4+16)+(1+4)]=1250$